Chapter 33 Quiz: Identity & Access Security¶
Test your knowledge of authentication factors, federated identity protocols, privileged access management, Active Directory attack techniques, and identity governance.
Questions¶
1. An attacker extracts NTLM password hashes from a compromised workstation and uses them to authenticate to other systems without cracking the hashes. Which AD attack technique is this?
- A) Kerberoasting
- B) Pass-the-Hash (PtH)
- C) DCSync
- D) Golden Ticket
Answer
B — Pass-the-Hash (PtH)
Pass-the-Hash exploits Windows NTLM authentication, which only requires the hash — not the plaintext password. An attacker who extracts NTLM hashes (from LSASS memory via tools like Mimikatz) can authenticate directly to other systems using those hashes. Mitigations include: Credential Guard, Protected Users group, disabling NTLM where possible, and local admin password rotation (LAPS).
2. A security analyst runs the following PowerShell command against Active Directory: Get-ADUser -Filter {ServicePrincipalName -ne "$null"} -Properties ServicePrincipalName. What attack is the analyst hunting for evidence of?
- A) DCSync
- B) Pass-the-Hash
- C) Kerberoasting
- D) AS-REP Roasting
Answer
C — Kerberoasting
Kerberoasting targets service accounts with Service Principal Names (SPNs). Any domain user can request a Kerberos TGS ticket for any SPN — the ticket is encrypted with the service account's NTLM hash. Attackers extract these tickets offline and crack them to recover the service account password. Enumerating accounts with SPNs is the first step in identifying Kerberoastable targets.
3. What is the key difference between OAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect (OIDC)?
- A) OAuth 2.0 is for authentication; OIDC is for authorization
- B) OAuth 2.0 is an authorization framework (access delegation); OIDC is an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0 that adds user authentication
- C) OAuth 2.0 only works with REST APIs; OIDC is required for SAML compatibility
- D) OIDC replaces OAuth 2.0 in all modern applications
Answer
B — OAuth 2.0 is an authorization framework (access delegation); OIDC is an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0 that adds user authentication
OAuth 2.0 was designed for access delegation (allowing app A to access resources on behalf of a user from service B) — it issues access tokens but does not specify who the user is. OIDC adds an ID Token (JWT) that contains claims about the user's identity (sub, email, name), enabling authentication. SAML is a separate, XML-based federated authentication protocol used primarily for enterprise SSO.
4. A PAM (Privileged Access Management) solution implements Just-in-Time (JIT) access for privileged accounts. Which statement best describes JIT access?
- A) Privileged accounts are permanently provisioned but require MFA for each use
- B) Privileged access is granted on-demand for a defined time window for a specific task, then automatically revoked
- C) JIT access allows administrators to bypass MFA for faster incident response
- D) JIT means privileged account passwords are rotated on a 90-day schedule
Answer
B — Privileged access is granted on-demand for a defined time window for a specific task, then automatically revoked
JIT access eliminates standing privilege — the most dangerous aspect of traditional PAM. Instead of permanent admin accounts that sit dormant (and can be targeted), JIT grants elevated access only when requested, for only the duration needed (e.g., 2-hour window for a specific maintenance task), with full audit logging. At expiration, access is automatically revoked. This dramatically reduces the attack surface for lateral movement.
5. FIDO2 with WebAuthn uses which authentication mechanism that is resistant to phishing?
- A) One-time passwords (TOTP) sent via SMS
- B) Public/private key cryptography where the private key never leaves the authenticator device, and the challenge is origin-bound to the specific website
- C) Knowledge-based authentication (KBA) verified against a central directory
- D) Client certificates stored in the browser's certificate store
Answer
B — Public/private key cryptography where the private key never leaves the authenticator device, and the challenge is origin-bound to the specific website
FIDO2/WebAuthn is phishing-resistant because: (1) the private key is stored in a hardware authenticator (security key or TPM) and never transmitted, and (2) the cryptographic challenge includes the site's origin (domain) — a phishing site at evil.com cannot impersonate login.example.com because the origin is embedded in the signed response. SMS OTPs (A) are phishable via real-time relay attacks.
6. An attacker on a domain controller runs a tool that mimics a domain controller and requests all Active Directory replication data including NTLM hashes for all users. Which technique is this?
- A) Kerberoasting
- B) Pass-the-Hash
- C) DCSync
- D) Silver Ticket
Answer
C — DCSync
DCSync exploits the Active Directory replication protocol (MS-DRSR). An attacker with sufficient privileges (Domain Admin, Domain Controller, or accounts with Replicating Directory Changes rights) can simulate a domain controller and request password hashes for any or all users — including the KRBTGT account hash needed for Golden Ticket attacks. Detecting DCSync: alert on MS-DRSR replication requests from non-DC accounts.
7. An Identity Governance and Administration (IGA) platform runs a quarterly access certification campaign. What is the primary risk that access certification campaigns address?
- A) Access provisioning delays that reduce productivity
- B) Privilege accumulation — users accumulating excessive permissions over time through role changes and never having old access removed
- C) Password complexity compliance for service accounts
- D) Multi-factor authentication enrollment gaps
Answer
B — Privilege accumulation — users accumulating excessive permissions over time through role changes and never having old access removed
Access certification (also called access review or recertification) is a periodic process where resource owners review and confirm or revoke user entitlements. Without it, users accumulate access over time as they change roles (privilege creep/accumulation), violating least privilege. Quarterly reviews ensure that access granted for previous roles is revoked when no longer needed.
8. UEBA (User and Entity Behavior Analytics) detects an alert: "User john.smith downloaded 47GB from SharePoint between 02:00–04:00 UTC, 3 hours after badge-out at the office." Which insider threat indicator pattern is this?
- A) Masquerade attack — an external attacker using legitimate credentials
- B) Anomalous data exfiltration by an authenticated user outside normal working hours — consistent with a malicious insider or compromised account
- C) Credential stuffing attack using john.smith's email address
- D) Normal backup behavior from the SharePoint service account
Answer
B — Anomalous data exfiltration by an authenticated user outside normal working hours — consistent with a malicious insider or compromised account
UEBA correlates multiple signals: time anomaly (outside business hours), volume anomaly (47GB is far above baseline), and physical context (badge-out 3 hours prior contradicts presence in office). This pattern is consistent with either a malicious insider (data theft before resignation/termination) or a compromised account (attacker using stolen credentials after hours). Both require immediate investigation.
9. An organization migrating to Entra ID (formerly Azure AD) wants to ensure that even if a user's password is stolen, attackers cannot authenticate without a second factor that is also resistant to real-time phishing relay attacks. Which Entra ID feature provides this?
- A) Azure AD Password Protection (banning common passwords)
- B) FIDO2 security keys or Windows Hello for Business configured as phishing-resistant MFA methods in Conditional Access
- C) Enabling Security Defaults in Entra ID (uses Authenticator app TOTP)
- D) Azure AD Smart Lockout (locks accounts after failed attempts)
Answer
B — FIDO2 security keys or Windows Hello for Business configured as phishing-resistant MFA methods in Conditional Access
Entra ID supports multiple MFA methods, but only FIDO2 security keys and Windows Hello for Business are classified as phishing-resistant (they use hardware-bound, origin-bound cryptography). Authenticator app TOTP (Security Defaults) is better than nothing but is phishable via real-time adversary-in-the-middle (AiTM) proxies (e.g., Evilginx). CISA guidance mandates phishing-resistant MFA for high-assurance use cases.
10. An organization discovers that the KRBTGT account's password hash was extracted during a breach. What must they do to invalidate all forged Kerberos tickets?
- A) Force a password reset for all domain users
- B) Reset the KRBTGT account password twice in succession (allowing time between resets for replication), since active Golden Tickets remain valid until the KRBTGT password changes
- C) Reboot all domain controllers simultaneously
- D) Revoke all user certificates in the PKI hierarchy
Answer
B — Reset the KRBTGT account password twice in succession (allowing time between resets for replication), since active Golden Tickets remain valid until the KRBTGT password changes
A Golden Ticket is a forged TGT signed with the KRBTGT account's hash — it is valid for up to 10 years and is not tied to any user account. The only way to invalidate all outstanding Golden Tickets is to reset the KRBTGT password (which changes the signing key). It must be reset twice because DCs retain the previous password hash for replication — the second reset invalidates tickets signed with either previous key. Allow replication between resets.
Scoring¶
| Score | Performance |
|---|---|
| 9–10 | Expert — Identity security, AD attack techniques, and IAM architecture fully mastered |
| 7–8 | Proficient — Ready to lead identity security programs and PAM deployments |
| 5–6 | Developing — Review Chapter 33 sections on AD attack paths, JIT access, and federation protocols |
| <5 | Foundational — Re-read Chapter 33 before proceeding |
Return to Chapter 33 | Next: Chapter 34